Saturday 25 June 2011

Question

An interesting and intriguing tweet from @TomHarrisMP:
"Given that I am not remotely accountable to IPSA and would never do anything they tell me, why does my P60 say I'm employed by them?"
Whilst I stand to be corrected, I always believed that MPs were classified by HMRC as self-employed, in which case a query by @DevilsKitchen is worth repeating, the context of which was: if MPs are so classified why are we paying their expenses and admin/staff costs?

Anything to separate the link between MPs and their constituents, then? Where was this little 'arrangement' in any manifesto and when were we, who fund this 'leeching' group, asked for our agreement?

May just have to email my MP to find out................. (I'm sure he will be only too eager to tell me, seeing as we are 'best-mates' - not!)


2 comments:

SadButMadLad said...

More info here - http://www.hmrc.gov.uk/forms/sa102-mp-m1.pdf

It seems that due to MPs claiming their expenses from IPSA, IPSA must be their employer.

WitteringsfromWitney said...

SBML: Thanks, I knew someone would do the spadework...... :)

So they are not self-employed then but as we fund their salaries and expenses through taxation, how can IPSA be their employers? IPSA are but the 'accounting office' acting on our behalf as a check & balance department - and don't forget we pay those b'stards too!